Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC By Jatin Verma

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Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC By Jatin Verma

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Today we are sharing an important pdf in hindi Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC By Jatin Verma | JV’s IAS Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations of 2020-2021. A chapterwise course of total 2850 MCQs divided into 60 chapters and 16 Mock Tests is available in Android app of GKToday under UPSC Prelims Category.

Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC By Jatin Verma | JV’s IAS Indian Polity General Knowledge in an extremely important section as far as the administrative competitive exams such as IAS, SSC CGL, CHSL, etc. are concerned. Apart from this, a few Indian Politics questions are also asked in different banking competitive exams like IBPS Clerk, SBI PO, etc. That’s why aspirants should read as many Indian politics questions and answers as possible for good preparation of their exams.

Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC By Jatin Verma | JV’s IAS In this post, we are presenting the selective Indian Polity Quiz questions and answers important for various competitive exams. You should keep visiting this post regularly because here we are going to update these questions on a regular basis. If you also have some good questions on Indian Polity or have any doubt then you can post the same in the comment section below.

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Best Indian Polity Notes for UPSC

Q1.In which year, the first meeting of Rajya Sabha was held in Independent India?

[A] 1950

[B] 1952

[C] 1953

[D] 1954

Correct Answer: B [1952]

Notes:

The first meeting of Council of State was held on 13 May 1952. However, The Rajya Sabha, its Hindi nomenclature was adopted in 23 August, 1954.

Q2.Which among the following committees recommended to set up an “Equal Opportunity Commission”?

[A] Sarkaria Commission

[B] Sachar Committee

[C] Bhagawati Committee

[D] Chawla Committee

Correct Answer: B [Sachar Committee]

Notes:

To set up an Equal Opportunity Commission for looking into the grievances of deprived groups; to develop an appropriate diversity index in education, work places and living spaces, to set up a National Data Bank and an autonomous Assessment & Monitoring

Q3.Which of the following is / are qualifications to be appointed as governor of a state?

Should be citizen of India

Should not be resident of the state of which he / she works as Governor

Should have completed age of 35 years

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1 & 2

[B] Only 1 & 3

[C] Only 1

[D] 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: B [Only 1 & 3 ]

Notes:

The only qualifications for appointment as Governor are that he should be a citizen of India and must have completed the age of thirty-five years. [Article 157]

Q4.Which act discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary of State?

[A] Independence of India Act, 1947

[B] Government of India Act, 1935

[C] Government of India Act, 1919

[D] None of the Above

Correct Answer: A [ Independence of India Act, 1947 ]

Notes:

The Indian Independence Act, 1947 had the provision for discontinuation of civil services and reservation of posts by Secretary of State. However, the members of the civil services appointed before August 15, 1947 were to enjoy all the benefits that they were entitled till that time.

Q5.In which year, Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership to the Commonwealth?

[A] 1948

[B] 1949

[C] 1950

[D] 1951

Correct Answer: B [1949]

Notes:

The Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. Choosing to remain in the Organization was India’s first major foreign policy decision after Independence. Commonwealth is a free association of sovereign states.

Q6.Who among the following was not among the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

[B] Dr. K M Munshi

[C] Syed Mohammad Saadullah

[D] G. V. Mavalankar

Correct Answer: D [G. V. Mavalankar]

Notes:

The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly consisted of 7 members- DR. B. R. Ambedkar (Chairman), N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr. K M Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N Madhava Rau and T T Krishnamachari.

Q7.Which of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution are related to Right to freedom of Religion?

[A] Article 16 to 19

[B] Article 19 to 22

[C] Article 23 & 24

[D] Article 25 to 28

Correct Answer: D [Article 25 to 28]

Notes:

The Right to Freedom of Religion is enshrined in Constitution from Article 25 to 28. No person can be compelled to practice any religion. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion is ensured by the Constitution of India.

Q8.In which case the constitutional validity of First Amendment Act was questioned?

[A] Shankari Prasad case

[B] Kesavananda Bharati case

[C] Indira Nehru Gandhi case

[D] None above the above

Correct Answer: 0 []

Notes:

The question whether Fundamental Rights can be amended by the Parliament came for consideration of the Supreme Court within a year of the Constitution coming into force.The constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act of 1951, which curtailed the right to property, was challenged in the Shankari Prasad case of 1951.

Q9.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Indian and British parliamentary system of government?

[A] India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system

[B] Britain does not has a system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has such a system

[C] A person who is not a member of Parliament cannot be appointed as minister in India while in Britain it can happen

[D] In

In India the prime minister must be a member of lower House of Parliament while in Britain he can be a member of any of the houses

Correct Answer: A [India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system]

Notes:

Only statement 1 is correct. Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. In India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister (maximum 6 months) which is not possible in Britain. In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House of the Parliament while in India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.

Q10.Who has the power to remove the President of India?

[A] Parliament

[B] Lok Sabha

[C] Rajya Sabha

[D] Chief Justice of India

Correct Answer: A [Parliament]

Notes:

According to Article 56(1)(b) of the Constitution of India the President can be removed from his/her office by the process of impeachment for the violation of the constitution of India.

Best Indian Polity Notes

Q11.On which date was the resolution for giving effect to Constitution of India adopted?

[A] 21st March, 1946

[B] 22 January, 1946

[C] 20th February, 1947

[D] 22nd January, 1947

Correct Answer: D [ 22nd January, 1947 ]

Notes:

On 22nd January, 1947, a resolution for the Constitution of India was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It had been earlier presented by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December, 1946.

Q12.Which of the following personalities was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] K. M. Munshi

[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad

[C] G. V. Mavalankar

[D] Mahatma Gandhi

Correct Answer: D [Mahatma Gandhi]

Notes:

Constituent Assembly was not directly elected on the basis of adult franchise but it did comprise representatives from all the sections of the society. It included all the important personalities with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.

Q13.The concept of Judicial Review in India is adopted from the Constitution of which country?

[A] USA

[B] Germany

[C] USSR

[D] Australia

Correct Answer: A [USA]

Notes:

The concept of Judicial Review in India has been adopted from the Constitution of the United States of America. It is the power of court to examine the actions of the legislative, executive and administrative arms of the government and determine their constitutional validity.

Q14.Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India and their provisions not correct?

[A] 9th Schedule – Acts beyond Judicial Review

[B] 6th Schedule – Scheduled Areas

[C] 8th Schedule – Languages

[D] 3rd Schedule – Oaths

Correct Answer: B [6th Schedule – Scheduled Areas]

Notes:

Ninth Schedule deals with the validation of certain acts and regulations. This schedule holds the laws that are beyond judicial review. It bars the courts, including the Supreme Court, from striking down laws on the ground that it violates fundamental rights. Sixth Schedule deals with the provisions made for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to Languages recognized by the Constitution of India. 3rd Schedule of Indian Constitution is related to the forms of oaths and affirmations.

Q15.Which of the following writs is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

[A] Mandamus

[B] Habeas Corpus

[C] Prohibition

[D] Certiorari

Correct Answer: C [Prohibition]

Notes:

Prohibition means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. .

Q16.Which of the following is out of the purview of article 21 of the Constitution?

[A] Capital punishment

[B] Pollution of quality of water

[C] Sexual Harassment of women at work place

[D] Medical aid to injured by a doctor

Correct Answer: A [Capital punishment]

Notes:

Capital punishment does not come under the purview of Capital punishment. All the other rights come under the right to life and personal liberty as it has been declared by the Supreme Court.

Q17.Which of the following was not added to the Directive Principles by 42nd Amendment of the Constitution?

[A] Participation of workers in the management of industries

[B] Equal justice and free legal aid to poor

[C] Uniform civil code

[D] Protection of children and youth from exploitation

Correct Answer: C [Uniform civil code]

Notes:

In the following except Uniform Civil Code all were added by 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India. Article 39 A asks the state to promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse is covered in Article 39 (f) and Article 43 A secures the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

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